It’s hard for me to wrap my head around Amulek’s explanation
of why the atonement had to be infinite. In his example you can’t kill a murderer’s
brother to pay for his sin—the law requires that you suffer your own consequences.
Why does an infinite atonement relate? The only thing I can think it that it allows
the same mercy for every sinner. Okay, now this is making sense. Every person who
has sinned can turn to the same redemption—it is only just mercy if it is available
to every criminal.
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