The law of Moses before the coming of Christ and then not
after is still a confusing point to me. I know He fulfilled the law, and it all
pointed to His coming, but what Him fulfilling the law actually means I don’t
understand. I can’t think of another context to compare it to that helps,
either.
So, I paused here, and have done more research. The problem
comes from thinking about it with the wrong definition of fulfill. Thisarticle, helped clarify more than anything else I found. The Law of Moses was
leading to a higher law, where we are changed to not desire sin. No hatred, not
murder, no lust, no adultery. By giving us the higher law, the requirements of the
lower remain, that is why they haven’t passed away, but the higher law encompasses
them. They have become part of something larger and greater. As we keep Christ’s
higher law, we naturally keep the lower law because those sins can’t exist within
the higher law. I really hope this makes sense to myself later. Whew!
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